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Michel Foucault's "The Archaeology of Knowledge" (First Half)

Theory & Philosophy

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Is Discourse a New Transcendental Principle?

Foucault wanted to ensure that his work and his explanation of discourse here is not appropriated in the same way that Nietzsche's discourse was. He wants to make sure his idea of discourse doesn't itself become or get appropriated as a transcendental principle. So he emphasizes the materiality of the statement to ensure it can't be misconstrued as a transcendENTAL object. It's always on the level of the material, like discourse operates on thelevel of the material,. In distinction. Not, he makes this point somewhere else not in reference to the materialality of the statement, but just in general that discourse is not itself a new transcendental principle or transcendental origin.

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